IIMT Management College, Meerut: December 2009

Monday, December 14, 2009

QUESTION BANK PGTD

Q.1. Theory X & theory Y were given by
(a) Abhram Maslow (b) Douglas Mc. Gregor
(c) Fredrick Herzberg (d) Henry Fayol
Q.2. "Motivation & Personality" was written by:
(a) D. Mc. Gregor (b) H. Fayol
(c) Ab. maslow (d) F. Herzberg
Q.3. If recruiter chooses to hire a person be he attended the same institute he did, he has given into:
(a) Stereotype (b) Halo effect
(c) Projection / similar to me effect (d) Selective Perception
Q.4. Which impression management technique describing events that make oneself look good.
(a) Opinion of conformity (b) Personal stories
(c) Excuses (d) All of the above
Q.5. ________________ is the extent to which individuals are co-operative warm & agreeableness Vs cold disagreeable & rigid.
(a) Conscientiousness (b) Extroversion-Introversion
(c) Agreeableness (d) None of the above
Q.6. ________________ is the degree to which individuals are gregarious, assertive & sociable Vs reserve timid & quite.
(a) Conscientiousness (b) Extroversion
(c) Agreeableness (d) None of the above
Q.7. ________________ is the degree to which individuals are calm, self confident & secure Vs insecure, anxious, depressed & emotional
(a) Conceit (b) Openness to exp.
(c) Emotional stability (d) None OF the above.
Q.8. _____________ refers to an individual's belief concerning his/her ability to perform specific task successfully.
(a) Self Monitoring (b) Machiavellianism
(c) Self efficiency (d) Cognition
Q.9. Psychoanalytical personality theory was given by
(a) Sigmund Freud (b) Myers Briggs
(c) Erikson (d) G.W. Allport
Q.10. Which of the following statement about personality is correct:
(a) Personally is always stable
(b) Personality is a part of person
(c) Personality is an aggregate whole
(d) Personality is the primary source of emotion.
Q.11. Extroverts are
(a) Shy & Quite (b) Gregarious & Sociable
(c) Analytical (d) Self Centered
Q.12. Maturity Immaturity theory of personality was given by
(a) Chris Argyris (b) Raymond
(c) S. Freud (d) G. W. Allport
Q.13. MMPI (Minnesota Multiphase Personality Inventory) is
(a) Personality Test (b) Perception Test
(c) Performance Test (d) Attitude Test
Q.14. 16 Personality trait theory was given by
(a) Cattell (b) Festinger
(c) Rogers (d) Sheldon
Q.15. Determinants of Personality are:
(a) Heredity (b) Environment
(c) Situation (d) All of the above
Q.16. Following are the 3 A's of Happiness
(a) Achievement, Autonomy & Assertiveness
(b) Affection, Autonomy & Attraction
(c) Achievement, affection & acceptance
(d) Affection, Assertiveness & Attraction
Q.17. Chris Argyris M-IM theory covers
(a) 4 dimension (b) 5 dimension
(c) 7 dimension (d) 16 dimension
Q.18. Which of the following is not a danger signal in personality sickness
(a) Immaturity (b) Regression
(c) Cruelty (d) Anti Social Behaviour
(e) Manipulation
Q.19. Healthy personality is reflected by
(a) HP Syndrome (b) Manic Syndrome
(c) Psychopathic Syndrome (d) Aggressive Syndrome
Q.20. Which of the following is not a least stable trait
(a) Bravery (b) Exactness
(c) Shyness (d) Jealousy
Q.21. Which of the following is an obstacle in changing self concept
(a) Intellectual factors (b) Emotional factors
(c) Environmental factors (d) All of the above
Q.22. Which of the following is a Molding technique of personality
(a) Child Gaining (b) Identification
(c) None of the above (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.23. Which of the following is the technique for child training
(a) Authoritarian & Democratic (b) Authoritarian & Custodial
(c) Authoritarian & E. Stability (d) Custodial & Democratic
Q.24. The 3 components of self concept are:
(a) Perceptual, conceptual & attitudinal
(b) Perceptual, conceptual & learning
(c) Perceptual, conceptual & Motivational
(d) Perceptual, Motivational & Behavioural
Q.25. If a lady feels that she is versatile enough and can perform better in his personal & professional life, but her in-laws feel that the role of a daughter-in-law is only to serve her family is the discrepancy between
(a) Basic self concept & Mirror (b) Basic & Ideal self concept
(c) Physical & Psychological (d) Social & Ideal SC
Q.26. A boy, who use to score I position almost all the academic level & various others extracurricular activities like singing etc, get eliminated in the preliminary round of the Mega Model hunt of his state, get depressed & confused about his future is the discrepancy between
(a) Basic self concept & Mirror (b) Basic & Ideal self concept
(c) Physical & Psychological (d) Social & Ideal SC
Q.27. Which of the following is not a short cut to judge personality
(a) Physiognomy (b) Phrenology
(c) Personology (d) Graphology
Q.28. Barriers to attitudinal change are
(a) Providing additional infn (b) Result of inadequate infn
(c) Prior commitment (d) Both (b) & (c)
Q.29. Semantic differential scale of measurement was developed by
(a) Likert (b) Thurstone
(c) Chave & Menon (d) Osgood & Tanenbaum
Q.30. The form of learning in which people associate the consequences of their actions with the actions themselves is referred to as
(a) Cross cultural training (b) Operant conditioning
(c) Observational Learning (d) None of the above
Q.31. Learning curve was introduced by
(a) Joseph Cult & Harry Ingham (b) Bryan & Harter
(c) Elton Mayo & Skinner (d) None of the above
Q.32. What do we call the view that we can learn both through observation & direct experiences
(a) Situation learning (b) Pavlov principle
(c) Social learning theory (d) Hands on learning experience
Q.33. Experiments performed by Russian Psychologist IVAN PAVLOV led to what theory
(a) Classical conditioning (b) Operant Conditioning
(c) Cognitive L. Th. (d) Social L. Th.
Q.34. Learning can be defined as
(a) Temporary change in personality
(b) Permanent change in personality
(c) No change in behaviour
(d) Reinforcement
Q.35. Operant conditioning is based on
(a) Law of Inertia (b) Law of effect
(c) Law of nature (d) Law of behaviour
Q.36. Which of the following is not a theory of learning
(a) Cognitive (b) Conditioning
(c) Moral (d) Social
Q.37. Which one is not a type of reinforcement schedule:
(a) Fixed Ratio (b) Mixed Ratio
(c) Fixed Interval (d) Variable Interval
Q.38. Operant model of learning was given by
(a) B. F. Skinner (b) Evan Pavlov
(c) Bell (d) Marc Walliance
Q.39. Cognitive theory of learning is based on work of
(a) Toleman (b) Skinner
(c) Bell (d) E. Berne
Q.40. ______________ is a change in behaviour as a result of experience
(a) Learning (b) Perception
(c) Personality (d) Attitude
Q.41. _______________ Learning is achieved through the reciprocal interaction between people behaviour and their environment.
Social
Q.42. ____________________ is based on the principle that if a response is not reinforced, it will eventually disappear.
Extinction
Q.43. Retention means remembrance of learned behaviour overtime
T
Q.44. Cognitive learning is achieved by thinking about the perceived relationship between events & individual goals.
T
Q.45. Which of the following statement is true about job satisfaction & productivity
(a) There is a strong correlation between job satisfaction and individual productivity
(b) Organizations that have happy workers tends to be more productive
(c) It is possible to measure .S. in terms of productivity
(d) None of the above
Q.46 Motivation will be higher when:
(a) An individual is provided with an opportunity to perform
(b) Reward reinforce individual performance
(c) Employees perceive a strong relationship
(d) All of the above elements are present
Q.47. Transactional movement in Psychotherapy was started by
(a) Timothy (b) Noel Jones
(c) Eric Berne (d) Adrian Keplel
Q.48. Johari Window was proposed by
(a) Joseph Luft (b) Harri Ingham
(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above
Q.49. _____________ is the pattern of behaviour that a person develops as he or she groups up based on his/her accumulated network of feelings and experience:
(a) Ego states (b) Life Positions
(c) Script Analysis (d) Strokes
Q.50. These types of transactions are helpful in maintaining flow of information among the members of organization
(a) Non complementary (b) Complementary
(c) Ulterior (d) Gallows
Q.51. The communication which has double meaning in this transactions:
(a) Complementary (b) Non complementary
(c) Ulterior (d) Gallows
Q.52. A situation in which an individual is confronted by divergent role expectation
(a) Role expectation (b) Role conflict
(c) Role identity (d) Role perception
Q.53. The combination of assumptions about oneself and other person is called:
(a) Life Positions (b) Script Analysis
(c) Ego states (d) Stroke
Q.54. The most effective transaction at work is
(a) Child-Adult (b) Adult-Adult
(c) Adult-Parent (d) Parent-Parent
Q.55. A basic unit of interaction is
(a) Networking (b) Communication
(c) Transaction (d) Co-ordination
Q.56. Equity theory of motivation is formulated by
(a) J.S. Adam (b) Mc Gregor
(c) Malsow (d) Merzberg
Q.57. Brain storming is
(a) Used to build group cohesiveness
(b) A technique that tends to restrict independent thinking
(c) A process of generating ideas
(d) Used mainly when group members cannot agree on a solution
Q.58. Which of the following is not a type of group:
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary (d) Reference
Q.59 Sensitivity Training is also known as
(a) Laboratory training (b) T-group training
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above
Q.60 Orientation is generally given to:
(i) New entrants (ii) Previous employees
(iii) Supervisory staff
Q.61 Off-the-job training is given:
(i) outside the factory gate (ii) in the class room
(iii) on the days
Q.62 Vestibule training is provided:
(i) on the job (ii) in the class room
(iii) in the training department
Q.63 Decision making technique
(i) in basket exercise (ii) Transactional analysis
(iii) Role playing (iv) All of above
Q.64 Technique used to develop interpersonal skills:
(i) Case study (ii) Management games
(iii) Transactional analysis (iv) In basket exercise
Q.65 Management games are used for
(i) Executive development programmes
(ii) Selection of employees
(iii) Job evaluation
(iv) None of the above

Thursday, December 10, 2009

Question Bank- Strategic Management

MBA IIIrd Sem.

Descriptive questions
1. What type of decisions are strategic decision and distinguishes them from other decisions?
2. Describe the process used to identify key internal factors in an organization’s strategic management process
3. How does the functional strategy differs from corporate and business strategy?

4. Give your opinion about “What would be the role of strategic management in a small local business units?”
5. Differentiate between strategic management and business policy. How strategy and Policy work together in an organization
6. discuss the impact of globalization and e-commerce on strategic management
7. “Environmental analysis is the process by which the strategist monitors different sectors of environment to determine opportunity and threats to their firm” discuss
8. Prepare an ETOP and OCP for an organization of your choice
9. Define “core competencies” and “product portfolio Benchmarking”
10. What are the various strategies? Explain ( stability, Expansion, retrenchment & combination strategy with suitable example)
11. What do you mean by portfolio analysis? Explain the concept of BCG matrix & GE nine cell matrix.
12. What do you mean by industry analysis? Give porter’s approach to industry analysis
13. What is competitive intelligence? Explain
14. Conceptualize the resource based approach of value chain analysis?
15. Explain the strategic budget & strategic audits.
16. What is the meaning of scanning functional resources?
17. Explain SWOT analysis. Also describe TWOS matrix and its relevance in strategy formulation
18. What is the significance of Mc Kinsey’s 7S framework of in strategy planning and management?
19. Explain the strategy implementation through structure and Human Resource Management
20. write short notes on –
• Organizational life cycle
• Various elements of organizational design
• Mintzberg’s theory of organizational structure
• Various types of strategic control mechanism

IIMT MANAGEMENT COLLEGE

QUESTION BANK

COMPUTER APPLICATION IN MANAGEMENT

1. A Compiler is ____
a combination of computer hardware
a program which translates from one high-level language to another
a program which translates from one high-level to a machine level
None of these
2. When a key is pressed on the keyboard, which standard is used for converting the keystroke into the corresponding bits
ANSI
ASCII
EBCDIC
ISO
3. A Pixel is
A computer program that draws picture
A picture stored in secondary memory
The smallest resolvable part of a picture
None of these
4. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment
Keyboard
Mouse
Joystick
Track ball
5. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
2
10
16
32
6. Which of the following is not an output device?
Scanner
Printer
Flat Screen
Touch Screen
7. Which of the following devices have a limitation that we can only information to it but cannot erase or modify it
Floppy Disk
Hard Disk
Tape Drive
CDROM
8. Which technology is used in Compact disks?
Mechanical
Electrical
Electro Magnetic
Laser
9. Which of the following storage devices can store maximum amount of data?
Floppy Disk
Hard Disk
Compact Disk
Magneto Optic Disk
10. Which of the following is the largest manufacturer of Hard Disk Drives?
IBM
Segate
Microsoft
3M
11. The memory location address are limited to
00000 to 9ffff(16)
00001 to 9ffff(16)
00010 to 9ffff(16)
10000 to 9ffff(16)
12. The programs which are as permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is known as
Hardware
Software
Firmware
ROMware
13. Memory is made up of
Set of wires
Set of circuits
Large number of cells
All of these
14. Primary memory stores
Data alone
Programs alone
Results alone
All of these
15. EPROM can be used for
Erasing the contents of ROM
Reconstructing the contents of ROM
Erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
Duplicating ROM
16. Which device can understand difference between data & programs?
Input device
Output device
Memory
Microprocessor
17. The contents of information are stored in
Memory data register
Memory address register
Memory access register
Memory arithmetic register
18. Memory unit is one part of
Input device
Control unit
Output device
Central Processing Unit
19. Algorithm and Flow chart help us to
Know the memory capacity
Identify the base of a number system
Direct the output to a printer
Specify the problem completely and clearly
20. Which of the following is not a valid size of a Floppy Disk?
8"
5 1/4"
3 1/2"
5 1/2"
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1. Which of the following companies developed MS Office 2000?
Microsoft
Novell
Corel
Lotus
2. Which of the following is not a part of a standard office suite?
Word Processor
Data base
Image Editor
File Manager
3. Which of the following is the Word Processor in MS Office?
Word Star
Word Pad
Word
Word Perfect
4. MS Word allows creation of ___ type of documents by default?
.DOC
.WPF
.TXT
.DOT
5. Which of the following is not a special program in MS Office?
Office Art
Clip Art
Word Art
Paint Art
6. Outlook Express is a ___
E-Mail Client
Scheduler
Address Book
All of the above
7. ____ is an animated character that gives help in MSOffice?
Office Worker
Comic Assistant
Office Assistant
None of these
8. MS Office provides help in many ways. Which of these are more closer to the answer?
What’s This
Office Assistant
Help Menu
All of the above
9. Which input device cannot be used to work in MSOffice?
Scanner
Light Pen
Mouse
Joy Stick
10. Which menu in MSWord can be used to change page size & typeface?
View
Tools
Format
Data
11. Which of the following is not a standard MSOffice Edition?
CE
Advanced
Standard
Professional
12. MSOffice 2000 included a full-fledged Web designing software called ___
MS Word
Front Page Express
FrontPage 2000
None of these
13. Which key should be pressed to start a new paragraph in MSWord?
Down Cursor Key
Enter Key
Shift + Enter
Control + Enter
14. Which of these toolbars allows changing of Fonts and their sizes?
Standard
Formatting
Print Preview
None of these
15. Which bar is usually located below that Title Bar that provides categorized options?
Menu bar
Status Bar
Tool bar
Scroll bar
16. Which of the following are valid Min. & Max. zoom sizes in MSOffice
10, 100
20, 250
10, 500
10, 1000
17. Which type of files cannot be navigated using ClipArt browser?
AVI
BMP
WAV
MP3
18. Which of the following is the latest version of Microsoft Word?
Word 97
Word 98
Word ME
Word XP
19. Which of the following is not a valid version of MS Office?
Office 4
Office 97
Office 98
Office 2000
20. Which option in File pull-down menu is used to close a file in MSWord?
New
Quit
Close
Exit
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1. Which of the following is the latest version of Excel?
Excel 2000
Excel 2002
Excel ME
Excel XP
2. Excel files have a default extension of
XLS
XLW
WK1
123
3. Which of the following is a popular DOS based spreadsheet package?
Word
Smart Cell
Excel
Lotus 1-2-3
4. Which of the following is the oldest spread sheet package?
VisiCalc
Lotus 1-2-3
Excel
StarCalc
5. Files created with Lotus 1-2-3 have an extension
DOC
XLS
123
WK1
6. How many characters can be typed in a single cell in Excel?
256
1024
32,000
65,535
7. A Worksheet can have a maximum of ___ number of rows
256
1024
32,000
65,536
8. A typical worksheet has ___ number of columns
128
256
512
1024
9. Comments put in cells are called
Smart Tip
Cell Tip
Web Tip
Soft Tip
10. Comments can be added to cells using
Edit -> Comments
Insert -> Comment
File -> Comments
View -> Comments
11. Which menu option can be used to split windows into two
Format -> Window
View -> Window -> Split
Window -> Split
View -> Split
12. Getting data from a cell located in a different sheet is called ___
Accessing
Referencing
Updating
Functioning
13. Which of the following is not a valid data type in Excel
Number
Character
Label
Date/Time
14. Which elements of a worksheet can be protected from accidental modification
Contents
Objects
Scenarios
All of the above
15. A numeric value can be treated as a label value if it precedes with
Apostrophe (‘)
Exclamation (!)
Hash (#)
Tilde (~)
16. Concatenation of text can be done using
Apostrophe (‘)
Exclamation (!)
Hash (#)
Ampersand (&)
17. Data can be arranged in a worksheet in an easy to understand manner using
Auto Formatting
Applying Styles
Changing fonts
All of these
18. Which area in an Excel window allows entering values and formulas
Title Bar
Menu Bar
Formula Bar
Standard Tool Bar
19. Multiple calculations can be made in a single formula using
Standard Formulas
Array Formula
Complex Formulas
Smart Formula
20. An Excel Workbook is a collection of
Workbooks
Worksheets
Charts
Worksheets and Charts
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1. The arrangement of elements such as Title and subtitle text, pictures, tables etc. is called
Layout
Presentation
Design
Scheme
2. A File which contains readymade styles that can be used for a presentation is called
AutoStyle
Template
Wizard
Pre formatting
3. Power Point 2000 has ___ number of views
3
4
5
6
4. The maximum Zoom percentage in Microsoft PowerPoint is
100%
200%
400%
500%
5. After choosing a predefine template, ___ option has to be chosen to change the background color
Design Template
Color Scheme
Animation Scheme
Color Effects
6. Ellipse Motion is a predefined ____
Design Template
Color Scheme
Animation Scheme
None of these
7. Animation Schemes can be applied to ____ in the presentation
All slides
Select slides
Current Slide
All of the above
8. To insert a new slide in the current Presentation, we can choose
CTRL+M
CTRL+N
CTRL+O
CTRL+F
9. A Chart can be put as a part of the presentation using
Insert -> Chart
Insert -> Pictures -> Chart
Edit -> Chart
View -> Chart
10. We can replace a font on all slides with another font using the ___ option
Edit -> Fonts
Tools -> Fonts
Tools -> Replace Fonts
Format -> Replace Fonts
11. Which key on the keyboard can be used to view Slide show
F1
F2
F5
F10
12. Which option in PowerPoint allows to carry slides from one computer to another
Save As
Save and Go
Pack and Go
Web and Go
13. Which view in Power Point can be used to enter Speaker Comments?
Normal
Slide Show
Slide Sorter
Notes Page view
14. Which option can be used to set custom timings for slides in a presentation?
Slider Timings
Slider Timer
Rehearsal
Slide Show Setup
15. Which option can be used to create a new slide show with the current slides but presented in a different order
Rehearsal
Custom Slide show
Slide Show Setup
Slide Show View
16. The boxes that are displayed to indicate that the text, pictures or objects are placed in it is called ____
Placeholder
AutoText
Text box
Word Art
17. Which of the following is an example for Automatic Text formatting
Underlining Hyperlink
Adjusting extra space
Replacing two –‘s with an em hyphen
All of the above
18. Which type of fonts are best suite for titles and headlines
Serif Fonts
Sans Serif Fonts
Text Fonts
Picture Fonts
19. Which type of fonts are best suite to display large amount of text
Serif Fonts
Sans Serif Fonts
Text Fonts
Picture Fonts
20. Power Point can display data from which of the following add-in software of MS Office?
Equation Editor
Organization Chart
Photo Album
All of these
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PRACTICAL PROBLEMS ON WINDOWS XP

Adding or removing programs (I)

In addition to the operating system, computers have other programs installed. If one of them is not useful anymore and we want to delete it, Windows has the Adding or removing programs tool, because a program cannot be uninstalled by simply deleting the files manually, due to that when a program is installed Windows creates notes on the Windows Register.

The Windows Register is a file where the current conifguration of the system is saved, the hardware, software and the different user configurations.

If we only delete the files linked to the program, the records that Windows created on the Register are not removed, so an inconsistency can occur. If we don't know how to handle the Windows Register we shouldn't delete notes because we could create an inconsistency, which in some cases may be fatal.
An important change that emerges as a consequence of the new user system is that to install or uninstall programs a user has to have sufficient authorization. Only the users that belong to the group System Manager can do so.

ADDING NEW PROGRAMS

Click on the Start button and choose Control Panel
Click on Add or Remove Programs option, a window will display with the three basic options shown on the left side of the picture as it appears below. Then clic on Add New Programs.

In this option we have two basic posibilities:
1. - Adding programs from a CD-ROM or floppy. If the program we want to install is on a CD-ROM or on a floppy we will click on the CD or Floppy button and a screen will appear prompting us to introduce the CD or floppy in the corresponding drive.
From that moment the asistant will guide us during the installation process. Normally it will ask us questions regarding where the program is to be installed, we recommend to accept the folder that it suggests.
It can also ask us what options of the program we want to install, for example, if we want a traditional installation, minimal, or complete
This is one way to install a program from a CD, but in the majority of the cases it is not necessary, it is easier and quicker to just put the CD in and let the program in the CD drive do it automatically. The result is the same and we will save ourselves having to reach this screen to Add new programs.
In some cases the manufacturer has not provided an installation program and we need to install it manually from here.
2.- Adding programs from Microsoft. If what we want is to add or update a new Microsoft component we need to click on Add programs from Microsoft, this will cause the system to connect us to the appropriate web page through the Internet.
On this page we are informed of the updates that are available to download. Normally we will find updates related to three main subjects: security problems, Windows updates, and driver updates.
We need to determine which updates we want to install on our computer according to our configuration and what we use it for. In most cases it is recomendable to install the security updates since they will protect us from viruses. The viruses show the security flaws of Windows, Microsoft fixes these flaws and places on its page the needed updates.If you do not have an interned connection you will not be able to use this update system. In the advanced unit you can see with more detail how Windows Update works.

Modifying or removing programs
Click on the Start button and choose Control Panel
Click on Add or Remove Programs option, a window will display with the three basic options shown on the left side of the picture as it appears below. Then clic on Change or Remove Programs.

The Modify or delete programs option is shown on the upper left corner because it is the option that is most often used. On this screen the installed programs in our computer are displayed.ç
To select the program we want to change or remove we have to click on it. On the image above ANIO Service appears highlighted. Now we can do two things with this program:
modify its instalation or delete it.
To do this, we have two buttons, Change and Remove. Although normally only one button will appear, Change/Remove.
The normal thing is to delete the program since modifying a program is usually done within the program, not from this screen.
In fact, the majority of the programs only allow for the option Delete.

If we click Change/Remove we will begin the process of uninstalling the selected program. This process can vary slightly depending on the program at hand and at times we will be in a process specific to that program. Other times Windows will take care of the uninstalling process, but in general it is a simple process that only requires us to answer a few confirmation questions.
Even so, the first time that you do this, there could be a few doubts. In order to solve these doubts or questions, here you have an advanced unit to look at in the event it is Windows that is carrying out the process

AUTOMATIC UPDATE

The process of updating through Windows Update can be a bit long, which is why Microsoft has created an automatic update system. Basically this system consists in alerting the user if there are available updates each time the computer is turned on. In this case a message next to the task bar will appear and if the user wants, the download process can start. The download process is done on a different plane so that the user can continue working on other things.
When the downloads have finished the user is informed so that they can be checked and if any of the downloaded updates are to be installed the installation can begin.

ADDING NEW HARDWARE (I)

It is possible to add new physical components to our computer like a modem or a new monitor, just to name a few examples. For the new component to work, our operating system needs to detect it. Usually, Windows will detect the new hardware automatically, but in the event that it does not, Windows provides us with the tool Printers and Other Hardware that lets us install the new hardware correctly.
Currently many of the components that we install incorporate Plug & Play technology. This consists of transfering all the responsibility to the operating system, thus the operating system is in charge of detecting the new hardware and installing the neccessary programs for it to work properly. It also detects if we uninstall a component and uninstalling programs to free space
This is all possible because Plug&Play components incorporate common protocols that allow the operating system to communicate with them.
Many Plug&Play components can be connected and disconnected without having to turn the computer off, specially the ones that use the USB system.
The Plug&Play allows WindowsXP to control their power use so that you can turn them off or minimize their power consumption when not in use.
When new hardware is installed, the computer needs the files that descibe the hardware and allows the computer to communicate with it. These files are known as drivers.
When we buy a modem, for example, a CD is included that contains the drivers for the modem. When installing the modem, the operationg system asks you to insert the disk in order to copy the drivers.
Windows XP already has the drivers for the most commonly used equipment. There are thousands of hardware manufacturers, so it is impossible for Windows to have all the drivers in the install CD. Sometimes it will not be necessary to insert the disk provided by the manufacturer.
In addition, WindowsXP is now capable of going online to search for driver updates through Windows Update.
When we want to add new hardware to our computer, a monitor for example, two things can happen: either the component is Plug&Play or it is not. In the first case, as we have mentioned, simply connect the hardware and Windows will recognize and install it automatically. The Plug&Play elements are conveniently labeled, but in case of a doubt, we can find out by plugging it into the computer. If the window recognizes it, this means it is Plug&Play and if it does not, it is not.
In the case that the element is not Plug&Play we need to install it manually. For this reason we are provided with an assistant, which we will discuss shortly.
Generally speaking, once having installed a hardware element we may need to access it. This is done through the control panel. It is a good idea to be familiar with these options, because we may need to delete a driver and modify some of its characteristics.

From the Start menu access the Control panel, and as you can see above, there are various options for configuring hardware. WindowsXP has divided the hardware into various groups, and there are different ways to configure each group.
These groups are: Network, Sounds, Printer and other hardware, etc.
In this unit we will discuss how to add elements that are not Plug&Play and how to add a digital camara. Then we will discuss printers and networks

CONFIGURING THE PRINTER (I)

The printer is one of the most used peripherals. In this unit we will learn how to install and configure a printer.
Installing a Printer
As we have already seen in the unit before, it is very easy to install new hardware, such as printers, since the majority use Plug&Play technology. This allows the operating system to recognize the new printer by simply plugging it in.
Nevertheless, in some cases we may need to do the process manually. When we plug a printer into our computer it is necessary to install the appropriate drivers so that our computer will recognize it.
Next we will learn to install a printer manually and to customize it to our needs.
Open the Start menu
Select the option Printers and Faxes.
If you do not have the option Printers and faxes on your Start menu, you can also reach it through the Control Panel, option Printers and other hardware.

A screen like this one will appear.

If you select a printer on the contextual panel to the right it will show you the options that you see here: Add a printer, See what is printing, Select printing preferences, etc.
These tasks are the ones that are usually needed to handle a printer.
Now, click on the icon Add a printer to launch the assistant that will help you install a printer.

The assistant will be asking you questions such as if your printer is connected directly to your computer or if it is on the web, to which port it is connected to, and then a screen like the one shown below will be displayed so that you can choose the manufacturer and the type of printer so that Windows can install the appropriate software.

You can also use the disks provided by the manufacturer, if you have them, or search for the drivers through Windows Update.
In this unit´s advanced page you have this entire process in detail.

SYSTEM TOOLS (I)

Windows incorporates certain tools such as the Disk Defragmenter, the Disk Cleanup the tool to free disk space, the Scheduled Tasks, etc. Almost all of these tools are designed to optimize the behaviour of the computer.
Next we will learn in more detail about some of the most useful tools.

The Scandisk
This tool is used to search errors in the system´s units and to repair those errors.
When the computer is turned off in an abrupt manner it is possible that some files may be damage. Normally when the computer is turned on after being turned off abruptly (without using the option shut down from the Start menu) the Scandisk is launched to check the system and repair any error that it may find.
This tool is usually used when we have a damaged disk. By using it we can fix the possible errors and therefore retrieve the information that it contains. Keep in mind that this tool is not a miracle worker and therefore it is not always possible to retrieve the information.
To open Scandisk click on the icon My Computer on the desktop , and the screen shown here will open up.
Now select the unit that you want to perform the scandisk on, for example unit (D), and right click it.
A shortcut menu will open, like the one shown select Properties from this menu.
This will cause the window Hard disk (D) Properties to open. Select Tools tab and the window shown on the right will open.

If you click Check Now... , the window Checking hard disk (D) will open.

Here you need to choose one of two options available: Automatically fix file system errors or Search for and attempt recovery of bad sectors.
Click on Start so that the scan can begin. This process can take a few minutes, depending on the size of the disk.
Once the scan has finalized a confirmation window will appear.

Question Bank Supply Chain Management

Q1. a. What is meant by logistical competency?

b. Explain the role of logistic in supply chain management?

c. Discuss in detail the element of logistic cost?

Q2. “Customer service is the output of logistic and supply chain management and It is key interface between marketing functions and logistic function”.

Q3 a. What is supply chain management?
b. Discuss the importance of supply chain drivers in detail
c. Discuss in detail the concept of supply chain planning and implementation.

Q4 . Discuss the role of IT in SCM

Q5 5. Given the information below, which alternative would you recommend ?
Factor Weight Location
A B C
Raw materials 0-40 50 70 60
Market 0-20 40 40 80
Transportation 0-10 90 70 50
Labour cost 0-20 40 40 30
Construction cost 0-10 10 60 30
The score of each location pertaining to each factor is out of 100.
Q6 "In the era of outsoucing, third party logistics can add value to existing supply chains." Explain this statement with examples.
Q7 Define SCM integration and discuss the strategies involved in SCM integration

Q8 Why is the location of warehouse important for the SCM? Discuss some methods for determining the location of the warehouse.
Q9 What are the challenges for Supply Chain Managment activities faced in India?
Q10 How to calculate reorderlevel, taking into account the orderquantities and orderpoint?

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Aggregate
Collecting data from disparate sources and making it accessible at a single location (usually a Web page).

Application Program Interface (API)
Some software solutions offer an API, which is set of tools and protocols that help integrate that solution with other software programs, or facilitate the customization of a user interface.

Application Service Provider (ASP)
ASPs offer the ability to rent applications in lieu of purchasing software; usually a cheaper solution to establishing e-commerce and e-business. Customers pay a usage fee to access these applications over the Web.

APS
Advanced Planning and Scheduling software. This type of software application helps companies manage customer demand and product supply, taking into consideration constraints such as plant capacity.

Auction
Matches buyers and sellers in any marketplace (or exchange) to transact in any quantity at any time. Allows users to submit a request for goods and services to be bid on by suppliers.

B2B
Business-to-business

B2C
Business-to-consumer

B2D
Business-to-distributor

B2E
Business-to- employee

B2G
Business-to- government

Back-end Integration
The process of connecting buy/sell front-end applications of an e-commerce system with the back-end systems. Oftentimes, companies have different systems running the front- and back-end processes, and integration is needed.

Back-office system
All the non-customer-facing systems within an enterprise, including enterprise resource planning (ERP) and materials/manufacturing resource planning (both referred to as MRP) systems, financial, billing and accounting systems, human resources (HR), distr

Bid/Quote Process
Another term for reverse auctions.

Brick-and-Mortar
Nickname for a traditional business, refers to its physical location in a building.

Bullwhip Effect
A pervasive supply chain problem whereby order variability grows as demand signals propagate upstream. Essentially, demand spikes as orders flow back from retailer to distributor to original equipment manufacturers to tier-one suppliers, and so on.

Buyer-driven auctions
A price-centric auction where buyers list what they are interested in purchasing and sellers enter competing bids.

Cash-to-cash cycles
The time difference between the monetary expenditure for raw and direct materials and supplies, and the receipt of payment from the customer for the finished goods. e-Commerce software companies often claim to reduce cash-to-cash cycle times.

CEM
Contract Electronic Manufacturer

CFO
Chief Financial Officer

CIO
Chief Information Officer

Click-and-Mortar
Nickname for a brick-and-mortar that has moved into e-commerce. Sears is a good example.

CoBAM
Coalition of Bricks and Mortars. This is a group of brick-and-mortar companies that organizes to form an online marketplace or exchange, like Covisint.

Collaboration
The use of Web-based software for the purpose of sharing information between businesses or organizations. Ex: Design collaboration allows engineers at different companies to share plans and data in real time.

Collaborative Commerce
B2B systems that enable companies to interactively share data, develop plans and create products online.

Content
Online materials including publications and catalog data.

Content Management
Sometimes called 'knowledge management'. Content management is often used to refer to the process of handling information presented in either a buy- or sell-side catalogs, including part numbers, descriptions and unit size. It also refers to the process

COO
Chief Operations Officer.

CPFR
Collaborative Planning, Forecasting and Replenishment. This is a type of software system that enables businesses to interactively share production, inventory and order information online with their partners.

CPO
Chief Privacy Officer. These individuals ensure that customer data is kept safe, and more importantly, customer satisfaction is kept high. Processes CPO may be involved with include spam prevention, protecting customer data that the company already posse

CRM
Customer relationship management. The use of Web-based software to analyze customer behavior. CRM systems generally store customer information that is aggregated from sales calls, purchases and customer-service centers.

CSO
Chief Security Officer

CTO
Chief Technology Officer

Data Mining
The analysis of database information; this usually involves identifying specific product information and codes, cleansing data and re-formatting it.

Digital Certificate
Used by a company to authenticate its identity online as an attachment to other documents or as a record kept on file. Digital Certificates are also used as a means to provide a public key to a trading partner, which encrypts information that a company s

Digital Signature
A series of numbers at the end of an email message or in an attachment that guarantees that the contents of a document or message have not been altered.

Direct Goods/Services
Goods or services that are part of the production process.

Dynamic Commerce
Commerce with no set price. This is the big promise of B2B for more efficient pricing. Examples can be found in auctions and reverse auctions.

e-Sourcing
Web-based execution of the sourcing process for goods and services

E2E
Exchange-to-exchange or Enterprise-to-enterprise

EAI
Enterprise Application Integration. Generally refers to the ability to share information between software systems at different companies, specifically, the transmitting of data.

EDI
Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)-- the transmission of trade documents electronically using standardized formatting.

End-to-End Solution
A common e-business buzzword, end-to-end refers to a streamlined, seamless and real-time flow of information and linkages across a value chain.

eProcurement
The act of acquiring/procuring/purchasing via an electronic format, i.e. the Internet.

ERP
Enterprise Resource Planning. A planning and scheduling system whereby various modules of a company's system can share data. For example, orders can be entered directly into a company's planning system and manufacturing is automatically coordinated.

ERP
Enterprise resource planning (ERP) is a set of applications that automate human resources and finances as well as handle tasks such as order processing and production scheduling.

Exchange
Also known as an e-marketplace. A Web site for buying and selling goods and services, usually via auctions.

Extranet
A network that is partially accessible to authorized parties outside an organization.

Firewall
A firewalls are software or systems that create a barrier and gateway between the computers that are networked for use internally and the computers that interface with the Internet. Firewalls block unauthorized log-ins from outside an organization.

Fulfillment
In the world of e-business, fulfillment refers to the process of shipping an order to a customer, and the automation of that process.

Fulfillment Service Provider (FSP)
An organization that manages and executes part or all of a company's fulfillment process, utilizing its own assets and resources.

Horizontal Exchange
An e-marketplace that facilitates transactions for goods and services across several industries.

Host
An organization that installs and maintains software on behalf of a separate organization.

Indirect Goods/Services
Goods or services that are not part of the production process.

Industry Consortium
An exchange runs by several companies of an industry who are attempting to streamline the supply chain and aggregate buying power. Typically, members of the consortium are rivals in the "old economy," as in Covisint, which is comprised of General Motors,

Information Technology (IT)
The systems, procedures, software and hardware involved in e-commerce.

Integration
The act of taking data from one software application (output) and, without human intervention, using it as input into a separate application.

Intranet
A network within an organization that is accessible only to that organization's members, employees and authorized persons.

Just-in-time Inventory (JIT)
An inventory system model based on the idea that one can coordinate the demand and supply channels to the point that desired items arrive just in time for use, therefore significantly reducing inventory levels.

LAN
Local Area Network

Lead Logistics Provider (LLP)
An organization that manages a full scope of logistics services for a company by aggregating and coordinating the services of multiple logistics service providers.

Legacy
Information stored in an old system and is unreadable by the new system. Legacy systems typically require some program to translate them into the new format.

Logistics
The processes involved in transferring goods through manufacture, storage and transportation to business customers and end consumers.

Logistics Visibility Provider
An Internet-based service that provides the integration to and captures the data from logistics service providers; cleanses, verifies and analyzes the data; and reports on logistics activities to facilitate supply chain visibility.

Maverick Buying
Any company or employee purchase that does not meet a company's purchasing policy. This includes using off-contract methods of procurement and non-authorized purchases. Also called Rogue Purchasing.

MRO
Maintenance, Repair and Operations. MRO products are those goods and services that a company purchases which are not used in production or offered for resale. Typical MRO purchases include manufacturing supplies, computers and office supplies.

Neutral exchange
An exchange run by a company that claims to have no vested interest in an industry.

OBI
Open Buying on the Internet. OBI is a project of the OBI Consortium (OBIC), formed in 1996 at the initiative of a group of Fortune 500 companies to establish interoperable sets of process standards for handling maintenance, repair and operations-related

OEM
Original equipment manufacturers.

Order/Demand Capture
These systems obtain information about a specific customer order as it happens. The software aggregates and evaluates customer orders and calculates how much of what product should be made in the future.

P2P
Peer-to-peer: Electronic file swapping systems that allow users to share files, computing capabilities, networks, bandwidth and storage.

Pick and axe companies
In the B2B world, ?pick and axe? companies, or equipment companies, are supposed to be the profit centers of tomorrow. They get their name from the business practice of backing the companies that sell to miners (companies that sell picks and axes) rather

Portal
The word portal can mean a number of different things. Originally synonymous with a Web homepage, portal usually refers to an online search engine, like Google. More generally, however, it can refer to the hub in a hub-and-spoke system. Portals can also

Private exchange
An exchange run by a single entity/company.

Public exchange
An industry consortium or third-party owned exchange that offers a many-to-many model.

Purchasing Card
Also known as a p-card. A program for businesses that combines credit card purchasing with back-end reporting. American Express, MasterCard and Visa are examples of companies that offer p-cards.

Recurring Revenue Model
Revenue model based on subscription fees rather than on up-front license fees.

Reverse Auction
Also called a buyer’s auction, a reverse auction empowers the buyer and allows them to find the lowest bidder from among suppliers/sellers.

Reverse Logistics
The supply chain that flows opposite to the traditional process of order acceptance and fulfillment. For example, reverse logistics includes the handling of customer returns, the disposal of excess inventory and the return journey of empty trucks and free

Reverse Supply Chain Management
The process of tracking items that return from customers and accounting for them in inventory; also includes resolving customer credit lines, automating return policies and curbing unauthorized returns.

RFI
Request for Information. When a buyer asks a seller to provide information about its business and capabilities.

RFP
Request for Proposal. A request sent by a buyer to one or more suppliers for contract pricing and/or services for a specified period of time.

RFQ
Request for Quote. A request sent by a buyer to one or more sellers for the pricing and availability of a defined quantity of specific items.

Rogue Purchasing
See Maverick Buying

S3
Stands for the sell-source-ship model for distributors, rather than traditional buy-hold-sell (BHS) model

Scalability
In one sense, it is the ability to meet ever-expanding demands. In another sense, it is an application capable of operating in small business to enterprise environments.

SCEM
Supply Chain Event Management. A term coined by AMR to describe software that proactively alerts users when a supply chain issue arises.

SCP
Supply Chain Planning. Forecasting changes in supply and demand planning production accordingly.

Seller-driven auctions
Sellers post goods for sale and buyers bid on them.

SKU
Stock Keeping Unit. A code by which all products are defined within a company.

SOAP
It stands for Simple Object Access Protocol, and it’s a proposal from some heavy hitters (IBM and Microsoft, among others) to bridge the gap between Windows and the tandem of Common Object Request Broker Architecture (CORBA) and Java. It does this by transfer

Solution
A fluffy PR word that means anything that fills a need or fixes a problem. Example: My washing machine is a clothing solution.

Spot Buys
A spot buy takes place when a buyer purchases a required item, or items, from a non-contracted, non-strategic supplier. Spot buys usually take place in emergency situations, when a buyer's strategic suppliers are unable to provide the required product at

SRM
Supplier relationship management

Strategic Sourcing
The process of determining long-term supply requirements, finding sources to fulfill those needs, selecting suppliers to provide the services, negotiating the purchase agreements and managing the suppliers' performance.

Supply Chain Management (SCM)
SCM refers to the analysis of and effort to improve a company's processes for product and service design, purchasing, invoicing, inventory management, distribution, customer satisfaction and other elements of the supply chain. SCM usually refers to an if

Theory of Constraints (TOC)
According to TOC principles, an operation is a chain of inter-dependent resources, in which only a few elements - called constraints - control the output of the entire operation

Third-party Logistics Provider (3PL
An organization that manages and executes a particular logistics function, utilizing its own assets and resources, on behalf of another company.

UDDI
Universal Description, Discovery and Integration. UDDI is a standard established for building online databases of companies and the goods and services they provide, similar to a Yellow Pages for the Internet. UDDI is intended to help businesses locate cu

Value-added Services
Any product offering that extends beyond simple buy-and-sell capabilities. This includes logistics, collaborative design, payment, verification and settlement.

VAN
Value-Added Network. A VAN company is an organization that helps companies exchange private documents, usual via EDI systems.

Vertical exchanges
An e-marketplace that serves a particular industry.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)
A theoretically safe area on the ?Net in which secure transactions can take place.

Visibility, or Total Visibility
The ability to receive real-time information and view data from all tiers of a company's supply chain, from the raw materials all the way to the needs of the consumers.

VMI
Vendor Managed Inventory. When sellers maintain inventory they own on the buyers' premises. This helps to minimize the buyer's investment in inventory.

WAP
Wireless application provider
WLAN
Wireless local area network. Allows a laptop user (or a strong desktop user) to unhook and roam freely about the building while maintaining a connection to the Internet. Starting to show up in some airports and convention halls

XML
eXtensible Markup Language. XML is a computer language that was created to facilitate e-commerce because it allows disparate systems to more easily transmit data and communicate. More specifically, XML creates a universal way for companies to describe pr

Supply Chain Management- Multiple Choice Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1 A supply chain is a sequence of firms that perform activities required:
A) to find products that are similar
B) to facilitate wholesalers inventory selections
C) to create synergy in their training programs
D) to create and deliver goods to consumers
E) to support the acquisition of raw materials

2 An important feature of supply chain management is its application of electronic commerce technology that allows companies to share and operate systems for:
A) order processing, transportation scheduling, and inventory management.
B) cost-effective flowing of raw materials
C) future purchasing of computer systems
D) future merger opportunities
E) prospecting new business ventures.

3 A supply chain is essentially a sequence of linked:
A) customer and prospects
B) supplier and manufacturer
C) suppliers and customers
D) warehousing and wholesaling units
E) events in the marketing process

4 In the automotive industry, the person who is responsible for translating customer requirements into actual orders and arranges delivery dates is the car maker:
A) supply manager
B) purchasing manager
C) production manager
D) supply chain manager
E) VP for production

5 It is estimated that the logistics costs of a new car are about:
A) 10-20%
B) 20-25%
C) 25-30%
D) 30-40%
E) 40-45%

6 Poor supply chain management practices can ____________________ an otherwise excellent marketing strategy.
A) seriously damage
B) make SWOT analysis difficult for
C) keep people employed on
D) mean quarterly lessons for
E) repair

7 The physical characteristics of a product will often dictate what:
A) types of sales can be made
B) forms of sales promotion to be used
C) types of instructions needed
D) geographic regions will be included
E) kinds of transportation can be used

8 Pricing interacts with a supply chain in many ways. For instance, transportation rate structures are adjusted by the carrier based on:
A) cost to unload
B) the size of the shipment
C) local currency rates
D) the logistics costs concept

9 The total logistics cost includes expenses associated with transportation, materials handling and:
A) customer complaints, cost of food and highway usage taxes
B) warehousing, inventory, stock outs and order processing
C) inventory control with sales forecasting
D) stock outage control with sales forecasting
E) historical figures weighted by last years numbers

10 The total logistics cost factors need to be balanced against the:
A) supply chain managers total experience
B) total expected transportation needs
C) customer service factors
D) lead time expectations
E) replenishment time forecasts

11 Lead time and order cycle time are the same as:
A) customer service time
B) supply chain flow
C) logistical clockage
D) replenishment time
E) real time service time

12 The inventory management systems designed to reduce the retailer's lead time for receiving merchandise is called:
A) efficient consumer response delivery system.
B) effective response.
C) on-time market delivery system.
D) efficient logistical response.
E) on-time consumer response systems.

13 Examples of third-party logistics providers are:
A) FedEx and Rosenau Transport
B) Sentinel Self-Storage and UPS
C) FedEx and UPS
D) UPS and Metro Van Lines
E) Purolator and Metro Van Lines

14 The seller must concentrate on removing unnecessary barriers for:
A) a quick response.
B) customer convenience.
C) transportation modes.
D) a piggyback operation.
E) a more personable relationship with the customer.

15 There are five basic transportation modes. They are air carrier, motor carrier, and:
A) pipelines, railways an water carriers
B) railways, ocean vessels and dirigibles
C) trucks, canals and robotics
D) water routes, railways and trucks
E) pipeline, water routes and ocean vessels

16 Rail has the largest shipping capacity compared to all except:
A) pipeline
B) air carrier
C) water carrier
D) motor carrier
E) none of the above

17 TOFC is the same as:
A) piggyback
B) total fleet command
C) tri-optic float carrier
D) one-way dispatching
E) deadhandle control

18 Air freight is costly, but its speed may create savings because of:
A) the extensive availability of airports
B) lower inventory.
C) getting to store shelves before water carriers.
D) lower costs created by FIFO.
E) other transportation modes take more time.

19 A reason to carry inventory would include:
A) to have tax write-off opportunities
B) having a wide variety to meet customer expectations
C) to increase ways to use the product
D) supplementation of synergy strategies
E) to promote purchasing and transportation discounts

20 Saturn's manufacturing operations in Spring Hill, Tennessee, uses a sophisticated system called:
A) JIT
B) OJT
C) OJE
D) POP
E) FOB

1D 2A 3C 4D 5C 6A 7E 8B 9B 10C 11D 12A 13C 14B 15A 16C 17A 18B 19E 20 A

Multiple Choice Questions 2

1 A marketing expert described a _____ as looking like a butterfly. The manufacturer is the body of the butterfly with many different suppliers accumulated on one side of the body for the left wing and a large number of buyers collected on the other side to form the right wing.
A) logistical flow
B) demand chain
C) materials handling facility
D) supply chain
E) retailer cooperative

2 _____ is the integration and organization of information and logistics across firms in a supply chain for the purpose of creating and delivering goods and services that provide value to consumers.
A) Supply chain management
B) Logistics management
C) Point-to-point management
D) Just-in-time management
E) Cost-effective flow

3 What is the first step in choosing a supply chain?
A) developing an umbrella mission statement
B) understanding the customer
C) making sure the members of the supply chain harmonize with the organizational culture
D) creating a unifying interorganizational strategy
E) determining what the competition is doing

4 Bombardier makes corporate jets and its strategy involves streamlining production activities, maintaining its reputation for quality, and reducing its costs. It has developed the Continental, an airplane assembled from just a dozen large component parts (not counting rivets). While building planes with subassemblies is not new, Bombardier is the first to not use vertical integration. All parts are supplied by carefully chosen independent companies that share the development costs and market risk. In terms of its supply chain, Bombardier has
A) lengthened its supply chain unnecessarily.
B) implemented a just-in-time materials handling policy.
C) created a marketing channel.
D) harmonized its supply chain and its strategy.
E) used a production repositioning strategy.

5 Winemaker Robert Mondavi Corp. buys satellite images from NASA to spot problems in its vineyards and aims to push those images out over a(n) _____ to its independent growers this year. Mondavi will help growers avoid vineyard problems-and improve the grapes it buys.
A) Extranet
B) customized search engine
C) electronic downloadable information (EDI)
D) customized database management system
E) entrepreneurial Internet

6 With which customer service factor are quick response and efficient consumer response delivery systems most closely related?
A) time
B) dependability
C) inventory costs
D) communication
E) convenience

7 Celarix.com is a business entity that monitors and calculates tariffs and exchange rates for small companies that ship export their products. Celarix is an example of a:
A) materials handling expert.
B) content provider.
C) freight forwarder.
D) third-party logistics provider.
E) logistics manager.

8 Which of the following statements about air carriers is true?
A) One advantage of air carriers is door-to-door delivery.
B) There are no space constraint limitations as to what can be transported in planes.
C) This method of transportation is especially effective for piggybacking.
D) Air carriers are commonly used for perishable flowers, clothing, and electronics parts.
E) All of the above statements about air carriers are true.

9 William "Gus" Pagonis is an executive vice president at Sears and oversees the systems the retailer depends on to make 5,000 home deliveries per day and move 250,000 truckloads of goods every year. With 30 large distribution centres and 90 smaller outlets, it's Pagonis's job to supply 100,000-plus products to more than 2,000 Sears stores. When asked to describe the retailer's distribution centres, Pagonis would most likely say,
A) "Just like other companies, Sears spends more money on distribution centres than any other element of its supply chain."
B) "Our success is due to the centralization of our distribution centres."
C) "Because our distribution centres are so efficient, they are the least expensive part of our supply chain."
D) "We use our distribution centres to facilitate sorting consolidating products from different suppliers."
E) "Distribution centres are the most important element of our order processing."

10 Modes of transportation are typically evaluated on the basis of all of the following criteria EXCEPT:
A) accessibility.
B) perishability.
C) frequency.
D) capability.
E) dependability.

11 TransCanada PipeLines, a natural gas transmission and distribution company, launched an advertising campaign in national Canadian newspapers and the country's major dailies to educate people about what pipelines do and where they fit into the economics of the community. The advertising might have told Canadians that pipelines:
A) are expensive to use.
B) have a high degree of reliability.
C) are weather sensitive.
D) rank high in terms of accessibility.
E) are accurately described by all of the above.

12 The Danish-flagged Carsten Maersk can carry enough merchandise packed in containers that when they are laid end to end, the containers would stretch 27 miles. When it reaches its destination, the containers will be removed from the ship and loaded onto trucks and railcars. This is an example of:
A) piggyback.
B) freight forwarding.
C) intermodal transportation.
D) an export agent.
E) an efficient consumer delivery system.

13 Traditionally, stores have carried inventory to:
A) prevent strikes or product shortages.
B) provide better service for those customers who wish to be served on demand.
C) eliminate forecasting uncertainty.
D) terminate production economies.
E) avoid purchasing and transportation discounts.
1D 2A 3B 4D 5A 6A 7D 8D 9D 10B 11B 12C 13B

Multiple Choice Questions 3
1 Dramatic cost savings are possible when efficient transportation systems and information technology can be substituted for _____ costs.
A) advertising
B) personal selling
C) publicity
D) inventory
E) billing

2 Supply chain management impacts all of the following aspects of the marketing mix strategy EXCEPT:
A) the target market selection decision.
B) product mix decisions.
C) pricing decisions.
D) promotion decisions.
E) distribution decisions.
3 An online retailer like Amazon.com relies on an efficient supply chain. The development of its supply chain supported its clearly defined marketing strategy and began with:
A) inventory forecasts.
B) a logistics mission statement.
C) the mature stage of the product life cycle.
D) understanding the customer.
E) none of the above.

4 In Canada, Coca-Cola Beverages has rolled out new marketing, technologies, and packaging to outmaneuver private-label Canadian cola bottlers, which have captured considerable market share. Coke will bring in a new just-in-time distribution system based on unit trains and cross-docking sales centres. Which of the following statements describes how Coke will use cross-docking?
A) Cross-docking will allow Coca-Cola to greatly reduce the need to store and warehouse products.
B) The use of cross-docking means Coca-Cola will rely more on business-to-business marketing.
C) The use of cross-docking means Coca-Cola will implement the customer service concept in its relations with ultimate consumers.
D) Cross-docking will allow Coca-Cola to use less freight forwarding.
E) Cross-docking will allow Coca-Cola to outsource its manufacturing.

5 In physical distribution decisions, total logistics cost includes:
A) order processing.
B) materials handling and warehousing.
C) transportation.
D) inventory and stockouts.
E) all of the above.

6 Canadian graphic arts, publishing and advertising companies, as well as their clients and suppliers, can exchange camera-ready art and other images faster and cheaper than before as the result of an agreement between Bell Nexxia and Montreal-based Cenosis. These two companies market a(n) _____ for the graphic arts. It allows a graphic designer to transmit the full contents of a magazine to clients or printing firms across the country-reducing production costs and delivery time.
A) efficient response system
B) vendor-managed communication system
C) Extranet
D) online logistics system
E) communication bot

7 Lead time is:
A) also called replenishment time.
B) typically more important to resellers than to consumers.
C) defined as the time that passes from ordering an item until it is received and ready for use or sale.
D) also called order cycle time.
E) accurately described by all of the above.

8 Combining different transportation modes in order to get the best features of each is called:
A) freight forwarding.
B) dual distribution.
C) intermodal transportation.
D) bimodal logistics.
E) intramodal transport.

9 In Canada, Coca-Cola Beverages has rolled out new marketing, technologies, and packaging to outmaneuver private-label Canadian cola bottlers, which have captured considerable market share. Coke will bring in a new just-in-time distribution system based on unit trains and cross-docking sales centres. Coca-Cola's use of unit trains will allow it to:
A) have a dedicated train that uses permanently coupled cars that run a continuous route from Coke's bottling plants to its retailers and back.
B) use intermodal transportation for export purposes.
C) use trucks to make door-to-door deliveries.
D) use more warehousing.
E) reach ultimate consumers through one-to-one marketing.

10 The major purpose of a trailer on flatcar (TOFC) is to:
A) deregulate the motor carrier industry.
B) combine the economy of rail carriers with the flexibility of motor carriers.
C) implement a JIT transportation strategy both domestically and internationally.
D) eliminate the need for containers.
E) provide a common power unit from origin to destination.

11 Air Canada, a Montreal-based airline, uses its excess storage capacity on passenger flights to Europe to haul cargo. It typically collects several small shipments consigned to a common European destination. Shipment schedules are mandated by the passenger side of its business. Air Canada is an example of a(n):
A) third-party service provider.
B) Extranet.
C) vendor-managed logistics expert.
D) import agent
E) freight forwarder.

12 A warehouse that emphasizes speed and efficient product flow to hold goods for short periods of time and move them out as soon as possible:
A) is a storage warehouse.
B) is a freight forwarder.
C) is a distribution centre.
D) is an inventory expediting centre.
E) has a just-in-time inventory system.

1D 2A 3D 4A 5E 6C 7E 8C 9A 10B 11E 12C 13 15 15 16 17 18 19 20

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 15 15 16 17 18 19 20

QUESTION BANK ACCOUNTING AND FINANCIAL ANALYSIS
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Define accounting and give its functions.
2. What is the difference between book keeping and accounting?
3. Accounting is both a Science and an Art. Examine this statement
4. What are the basic concepts of accounting?
5. What are the principles of accounting?
6. What is double entry system of book keeping?
7. What do you mean by final accounts? What are its constituents? Name them and briefly explain the purpose of each of them.
8. Differentiate between:
(a) Outstanding expenses & prepaid expenses
(b) Outstanding income & accrued income
(c) Interest or capital & interest on drawings.
9. What are the differences between Trail Balance and Balance Sheet?
10. What do you mean by the liquidity of the firm? How can the liquidity of a firm be assessed?
11. How do you perform the vertical and horizontal analysis of the financial statement? Explain clearly.
12. What are the uses of Accounting Ratios for the shareholders and creditors of a company? give examples in support of your answer.
13. What are the objectives of the analysis and interpretation of financial statement? Discuss with appropriate analysis pointing out their nature a significance.
14. "Cash flow statement is a special type of funds flow statements". Comment.
15. What is funds flow statement? How is it prepared? How does it differ from CFS.
16. "Cash flow Analysis is very useful to the management for short-term financial planning because it is a very effective tool for controlling the cash flows of a business". Elucidate this statement.
17. What is a funds flow statement? Explain clearly. Do you agree with this view that's funds flow statement is a better substitute for an Income statement?
18. Explain the meaning of depreciation. Enumerate different methods of depreciation. Explain straight line method.
19. Discuss the difference between reserve and provision.
20. What is the difference between straight line and written down value method of depreciation?
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is not a business transaction?
(a) Purchase of goods on credit.
(b) Loss of goods by theft.
(c) Withdraw by proprietor for personal use.
(d) Dismissal of an employee for committing theft
2. The function of financial accounting is
(a) Record all business transactions
(b) Interpret the financial data
(c) Assist the management in performing functions effectively
3. Which of the following is a business transaction?
(a) Purchase of goods from Mr. Arun
(b) Slapping of one worker by another.
(c) The proprietor dies.
4. Which of the following accounting does not record?
(a) Selling of goods.
(b) Loss by fire of goods
(c) Qualitative aspect of business
5. Accounting principles are generally based on:
(a) Practicability
(b) Subjectively
(c) Convenience in recording
6. The system of recording transaction based on dual aspect concept is called:
(a) Double entry system
(b) Double account system
(c) Single entry system
7. According to money measurement concept following will be recorded:
(a) health of managing director of company
(b) quality of company goods
(c) value of plant and machinery
8. The convention of conservatism is applicable:
(a) in providing for discount on creditors
(b) in making provision for bad and doubtful debts
(c) providing for depreciation
9. Asset account show ______________ balance
(a) debit
(b) credit
(c) plus
(d) debit or credit
10. Trail balance is prepared according to _____________ method
(a) balance
(b) total
(c) none
(d) both
11. The amount brought in by the proprietor in the business should be credited to _____________ account.
(a) cash
(b) capital
(c) drawing
(d) none
12. The process of transferring the debit and credit items from a journal to their respective accounts in the ledger is termed as ______________
(a) balancing of account
(b) posting
(c) journalising
(d) all
13. Purchase book records ___________
(a) All purchases
(b) cash purchases
(c) all credit purchases
(d) all credit purchases of goods
14. Which of the following is the example of personal account
(a) Machinery
(b) Rent
(c) Cash
(d) Creditor
(e) Salary
15. Payment of salary is recorded by
(a) Debiting Salary A/c, Crediting cash A/c
(b) Debiting Cash A/c, Crediting Salary A/c
(c) Debiting Empoyees A/c, Crediting Cash A/c
(d) Debiting Cash A/c,. Crediting employee A/c
(e) None of the above
16. Journal is a
(a) Book of Original entry
(b) Classified summary of all transactions
(c) Permanent record
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) None of the above
17. The function of financial statement is to ascertain
(a) Profit
(b) the value of assets
(c) the value of liabilities
(d) profit or less and financial position
18. Financial statements are prepared
(a) at the end of calender year
(b) at the end of the assessment year
(c) at the end of accounting year
(d) on every Diwali
19. The statement of assets and liabilities is
(a) Balance sheet
(b) Trading account
(c) Trail balance
(d) Profit and loss account
20. Gross profit is ascertained by
(a) Trading account
(b) Profit and loss account
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Profit and loss account
21. Outstanding salaries is shown as
(a) An asset in the balance sheet
(b) A liability
(c) By adjusting it in the P & L A/c
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) Both (b) and (c)
22. Depreciation appearing in the Trail Balance. Should be
(a) Debited to P & L A/c
(b) Shown as liability imbalance sheet
(c) Reduced from related asset in balance sheet
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) Both (a) and (c)
23. Bank Overdraft is shown as a
(a) Current Liability
(b) Contingent Liability
(c) Current Asset
(d) Unsecured loan
(e) Provision
24. Closing stock in trail balance implies that
(a) It is already adjusted in the opening stock
(b) It is adjusted in purchase account
(c) It is adjusted in the cost of sale A/c
(d) It is adjusted in the sale A/c
(e) It is adjusted in the profit and loss A/c
25. The commonly used method to analyse financial statement is:
(a) Common size statement
(b) trend analysis
(c) ratio analysis
26. Which is not one of the types of ratio?
(a) liquidity ratios
(b) balance ratios
(c) turnover ratios
27. The different types of comparisons are:
(a) comparison with standard on plan
(b) inter firm comparison
(c) both (a) and (b)
28. Dividend pay-out ratio is
(a) A ratio between dividend paid and the number of equity shares
(b) DPS divided by EPS
(c) a ratio between PAT and dividend paid
(d) The percentage of earnings over EBIT
(e) EPS divided by DPS
29. Receivables turn over ratio of 10 means
(a) The net credit sales for the year are 10 times the average receivables
(b) Receivables are generated 10 times during the year
(c) It takes 36 days to collect credit sales on an average
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) All of (a), (b) and (c)
30. The long-term solvency positions are measured by
(a) Coverage ratios
(b) Earnings ratios
(c) Structural ratios
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) Both (a) and (b)
31. 1 Year = 365 days. The expression is known as
(a) Receivable turnover ratio
(b) Average collection period
(c) Quick ratio
(d) Current ratio
(e) Leverage ratio
32. If the debt equity ratio of a company is 2 : 1 then it can be understood that for every
(a) 2 rupees of equity there is 1 rupee of debt
(b) 2 rupees of total assets there is 1 rupee of equity
(c) 3 rupees of total assets there is 1 rupee of debt
(d) 3 rupees of total assets there are 2 rupees of debt
(e) 3 rupees of debt there are 2 rupees of equity
33. Which of the following will result in flow of funds?
(a) purchase of furniture on credit
(b) writing off goodwill
(c) depreciation of assets
(d) appreciation of building
34. Inflow of funds does not take place due to:
(a) funds from operation
(b) increase in capital
(c) increase in W. capital
(d) sale of fixed assets
35. Current liabilities are equal to:
(a) working capital + current assets
(b) working capital – current assets
(c) current assets – working capital
(d) current assets + working capital
36. Increase in working capital is:
(a) source of funds
(b) application of funds
(c) funds from operation
(d) loss from operation
37. Cash flow statement is required for the financial planning of:
(a) short range
(b) long range
(c) medium range
(d) very long range
38. While calculating cash from operation ________ are added.
(a) decrease in current assets
(b) increase in debtors
(c) decrease in current liabilities
(d) all the above
39. The meaning of "fund" in funds flow statement is:
(a) Cash
(b) Net working capital
(c) Gross working capital
(d) Profit
(e) Either (a) and (b)
40. Which of the following is the source of funds?
(a) Increase in cash
(b) Increase in accrued expenses
(c) Decrease in reserve
(d) Dividend payment
(e) All the above
41. Which of the following is not a source of fund?
(a) Increase in share capital
(b) Increase in working capital
(c) Increase in long-term liability
(d) Increase in profit
(e) Increase in fund
42. Depreciation in straight line method is calculated on
(a) opening balance
(b) closing balance
(c) original cost
(d) market value
43. Depreciation is calculated on ___________ of assets.
(a) cost price
(b) market value
(c) book value
(d) income price
44. _______________ is created for unknown liability
(a) provision
(b) reserve for bad debts
(c) reserve
(d) provision for taxation
45. Maintenance of _______________ is a must
(a) general reserve
(b) sinking fund
(c) provision
(d) secret reserve

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